NISM-Series-X-A: Investment Adviser (Level 1) — Module 1
Money available today is worth more than the same amount in the future, because it has the potential to earn returns. Given a choice between Rs. 100 now and Rs. 100 after a month, every investor prefers it now — because of (a) an instinctive preference for current consumption, and (b) the ability to invest it and earn a return.
If Rs. 100 placed in a one-month deposit at 6% p.a. grows to Rs. 100.50, then receiving Rs. 100 now is equivalent to receiving Rs. 100.50 after one month — the investor must be compensated by Rs. 0.50 for waiting.
Similarly, Rs. 1,000 received after 3 years discounted at 5% is worth Rs. 864 today, but at 8% it is worth only Rs. 794 — illustrating that a higher discount rate lowers present value.
Important parameters in any TVM problem: (a) cash inflows/outflows (single, annuity, even/uneven streams), (b) rate of interest (compounding/discount/reinvestment rate), (c) time period (annual, monthly, quarterly), and (d) frequency of cash flows.
Present value is the amount you would pay today for a cash flow that comes in the future — it brings a future value "down" to today's worth.
Where FV = Future Value, PV = Present Value, C = regular cash flow, r = rate of return per compounding period, n = number of compounding periods.
Shyam will receive Rs. 6,500 a year for 8 years at 7% interest. Summing each year's discounted value:
PV = 6500/1.07¹ + 6500/1.07² + ... + 6500/1.07⁷ = Rs. 38,813.44
Using the regular-receipt formula: PV = 6500 × [(1 − (1/1.07⁷))/0.07] = Rs. 38,813.44 (same answer). In Excel: PV(0.07, 8, -6500).
A future payment of Rs. 50,000 will be received after 5 years at 6% interest.
PV = 50000 / (1.06)^5 = Rs. 37,362.91
The compounding-period rate must be adjusted for frequency — e.g. 8% p.a. compounded quarterly means r = 8%/4 = 2% per quarter. Greater frequency of compounding means more "interest on interest" and higher returns.
Scenario 1 (Simple interest, no compounding — interest withdrawn each year):
Interest = Rs. 5,00,000 × 8% × 5 = Rs. 2,00,000
Scenario 2 (Annual compounding, cumulative option):
Maturity value = 500,000 × (1.08)^5 = Rs. 7,34,664
Interest earned = 7,34,664 − 5,00,000 = Rs. 2,34,664
Scenario 3 (Quarterly compounding, cumulative, 20 quarters):
Maturity value = 500,000 × (1 + 8%/4)^20 = 500,000 × (1.02)^20 = Rs. 7,42,974
Interest earned = 7,42,974 − 5,00,000 = Rs. 2,42,974 (highest, due to higher compounding frequency)
Rs. 5,000 growing at 8% p.a. for 5 years (cash flow at the start of the period, type = 1):
FV(0.08, 5, , -5000, 1) ⇒ Rs. 7,346.64
The Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is the underlying compound interest rate that equates the beginning value (PV) of an investment to its ending value (FV) over n years.
120 = 100 × (1+r)^2 ⇒ CAGR = (120/100)^(1/2) − 1 = (1.2)^0.5 − 1 = 1.095 − 1 = 0.095 = 9.5%
In Excel: =RATE(2, , -100, 120) = 0.0954 or 9.54%
CAGR = (12.25/10.50)^(1/3) − 1 = 5.27%
NAV Rs. 11 redeemed at Rs. 13.50 after 450 days (non-leap year, so n = 450/365 years).
CAGR = (13.50/11)^(365/450) − 1 = 0.1807 = 18.07%
CAGR is the accepted standard measure of investment return, except for periods of less than a year.
r = periodic interest rate, nper = number of repayment periods, PV = loan amount.
Loan = Rs. 30,00,000; rate = 6.5% p.a. (monthly reset, so r = 0.065/12); tenure = 20 years = 240 months.
PMT(0.065/12, 240, -3000000) = Rs. 22,367.19
If the rate falls to 6.25%: PMT(0.0625/12, 240, -3000000) = Rs. 21,927.85 — a fall of about Rs. 439 for a 0.25% rate cut.
Loan of Rs. 5,00,000 at 8% p.a. (monthly), EMI = Rs. 12,000.
NPER(0.08/12, -12000, 500000) = 48.97 months — i.e. the loan would be repaid in approximately 49 months. This helps check whether the chosen EMI is matched to an affordable repayment period.
An annuity is a sum of money paid at regular intervals (monthly, quarterly, annually) — e.g. a pension. Annuities can be Fixed (fixed returns at regular intervals, e.g. a 5-year FD at 5.5% p.a.) or Floating (returns benchmarked to inflation, an index, or another reference rate as per the agreement).
Annuity of Rs. 5,000/year at 10% for 4 years:PV(0.1, 4, -5000), type 0 ⇒ Rs. 15,849.33
Annuity of Rs. 12,000/year for 10 years at 5%:
PV(0.05, 10, -12000) = Rs. 92,660
Annuity-table factor for 10 years @ 5% = 7.7217 ⇒ PV = 12,000 × 7.7217 = Rs. 92,660 (same answer, two methods)
PV(0.1, 4, -5000, , 1) ⇒ Rs. 17,434.26
Note this is higher than the ordinary annuity value (Rs. 15,849.33) — receiving money earlier means it can be deployed/invested sooner, so an annuity due is more valuable to a receiver and more costly to a payer.
A perpetuity is a constant cash flow from an investment that continues forever — e.g. perpetual bonds or pensions payable for a pensioner's lifetime.
Where PV = Present Value, C = constant cash flow, r = discount rate.
A perpetual bond pays Rs. 10,000 interest annually; discount rate = 8%.
PV = C/r = 10,000 / 0.08 = Rs. 1,25,000
1. What is the present value of Rs. 50,000 to be received after 5 years, discounted at 6% per annum?
2. An investment of Rs. 100 grows to Rs. 120 in 2 years. What is its CAGR (approximately)?
3. For the same periodic cash flow, rate and number of periods, the present value of an annuity DUE compared to an ordinary annuity will be:
4. A perpetual bond pays Rs. 10,000 as annual interest. If the discount rate is 8%, what is its present value?
5. Krishna invests Rs. 5,00,000 at 8% p.a. for 5 years. Compared to annual compounding, quarterly compounding will result in: